[1] From: Willard McCarty <Willard.McCarty@utoronto.ca> (12)
Subject: a question of grammar?
[2] From: Shlomo Sela <shlomo@erez.cc.biu.ac.il> (6)
Subject: Re: 9.324 on Abu Mashar Al-Qiranat
--[1]------------------------------------------------------------------
Date: Sat, 20 Jan 1996 09:16:37 -0500
From: Willard McCarty <mccarty@phoenix.princeton.edu>
Subject: a question of grammar
The following is a rather specialized matter, but I am hoping that some
members of Humanist will take sufficient interest in it to shed some badly
needed light on a research problem that vexes me continuously.
At issue is the relationship between adjectives and nouns in classical
Latin. In what sense can we say that an adjective standing alone and taking
the role of a substantive is nevertheless an adjective, and so subordinate
to some missing noun? When a noun is followed by a (modifying) adjective,
e.g. pater ignarus, do we read this as "[the] ignorant father" or "[the]
father [the] ignorant [one]"? How useful is it to maintain the distinction
when one is attempting to meet the language on its own ground?
WM
--[2]------------------------------------------------------------------
Date: Sun, 21 Jan 1996 14:28:15 +0200 (WET)
From: Shlomo Sela <shlomo@erez.cc.biu.ac.il>
Subject: Re: 9.324 on Abu Mashar Al-Qiranat
I am looking after the following book:
Albumasar de Magnis Coniuncionibus annorum revolutionibus ac eorum
perfectionibus. VENETIIS 1515.
I will be gratefull if some one can provide me with details about the
european libraries where this book can be found.
Thanks
Shlomo Sela.