"William M. Mandel" wrote: > "William M. Mandel" wrote: > > > I have to disagree strongly. The word "HOlocaust" has, most unfortunately, not > > lost the Zionist connotation, if by that one means that it pertains solely to the > > holocaust suffered by Jews. For decades, the efforts of Zionists and of Israel to > > limit the use of the term to Jews alone established that connection firmly in the > > minds of the general public. That remains the case, except among Armenians and > > Gypsies. That is why I do not capitalize it when not limited to the Jews, of whom > > I am one. As a matter of fact, perhaps it would be best to identify the ethnic or > > other group one has in mind, as a modifier of the word, in which case > > capitalization would make the point even more strongly. > > Bill Mandel > > > > PNFPNF@aol.com wrote: > > > > > In a recent post, Bill Mandel noted using the word "holocaust" not > > > "Holocaust" to refer to certain events of the early 1940s; while I understand > > > the wish to avoid the Zionist use of the latter spelling/capitalization, I > > > tend--with, I think, most folks--to the capitalized form much as one uses > > > other terms for major historic events, periods, etc., without necessarily > > > commitment to a view some originators of the term may have held (e.g., > > > "Reformation")--at least where, as here, the lowercase term has a separate, > > > only barely overlapping, meaning. In any case, however "Holocaust" > > > originated, the term as generally used has lost the Zionist connotations, to > > > my knowledge. > > > Oh well, this has as much to do with the 60s as have 2/3 the election > > > posts. > > > Paula
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